COZ 19% N 18% RATE NHE HA
WO i/m HN like 38.12/2 =19% yahan i means intresst rate 38.12% ha n m=2 HA
HM m KO INTEREST RATE MAIN INCLUDE Q KRHAY HN?
REGARDS
MAHA SHAH
On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 1:34 PM, DaE Elal Khair <dae.elal.khair@gmail.com> wrote:
The correct formula isFV=Annuity*((1+(i/m))^(m*n)-1)/(i/m)
please use this .....previous mention seems wrong..
On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 4:11 AM, Fuad Hasan <mrfuad2007@gmail.com> wrote:
This is the solution provided by Asad Munir ...check in your email...take it as an idea....make your own plz1,500,000 = 9000 [(1+i/2)^10*2-1] 19%1,500,000 = 2000 [(1+i/3)^10*3-1] 18%18 % is the favourable option because we can get sameresult with small amount of money. in first optionwe ll pay 9000 * 20 = 180 000 and in second we ll pay 2000 * 30 = 60 000in 10 years and the result is same 15 00 000. so second option is favourable18 wala theek hay bcoz if u convert it compounded yearly rate then it comesalmost 53.20% and the other one comes 38.12% and moreover in 2nd case u investonly 60000 whereas in the first option u have to invest 180000 so in secondoption u will get more profit with less investment--On Wed, Apr 28, 2010 at 4:00 AM, ~X@in@li~ <mc090403845@gmail.com> wrote:
Agar apny MGT201 Financial management ki GDB bana li hai to plz send me
MBA
2nd semester
Islamabad
*****************************
mrfuad2007@yahoo.com
mrfuad2007@gmail.com
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